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MODEL QUESTION
SELECTION TO THE POST OF OS(LDCE) AGAINST 20% VACANCY OF KGP DIVN.
-DESCRIPTIVE -
1. What procedure is to be followed for receipt , registration and distribution of Dak ?
2. What are the constituents of a file ? Explain briefly.
3. What is a file ? What are the guidelines for movement of files ?
4. What is the classification of records ? Explain briefly each class .
5. What is the action of the dealings hand on the receipt of the Dak ?
6. What general principles are to be observed in regard to action on receipt of Dak ?
7. What are guidelines regarding addressing communications to officers by name ?
8. Drafting of Semi – office letter on different matters.
9. Drafting of notifications for calling applications in connection with a Selection.
10. Writing of notes on different issues.
11. Drafting of Speaking Orders.
12. What is your suggestion to effect economy in staff expenditure?
13. Write briefly about Project abstract estimate.
14. Write about works programme. Describe the various stages involved in preparation
works programme.
15. What salient features to be considered while calling open Tenders ?
16. What is meant by variations? What is the procedure to process for sanction of variation
of quantities in a Contract agreement?
17. Differentiate :
a. Pink Book and Green Book
b. LSWP Works and OOT Works
c. Single Tender & Limited Tender
d. Limited Tender & Open Tender
18. Short Notes on –
a. Earnest Money Deposit
b. Standard Earnest Money Deposit
c. Security Deposit
d. Deposit Works
e. Tender Committee
19. Explain briefly about Rate contracts and Running contracts.
20. What is Stock Verification? What action to be taken on receipt of Stock Sheet?
21. What is Spot purchase? When do items are procured through Spot purchase?
22. What is Local purchase? When do items are procured through Local purchase?
23. Short Notes: Stock verification, Purchase order, Stock Sheets, Piece work contract.
24. Distinguished :
a. Rate Contract & Running Contract.
b. Local purchase & Single tender.
c. Single offer & Single tender.
25. Briefly explain about various types of tenders while procuring materials.
26. Write briefly about the organisational structure of Indian Railway.
27. How many Zones are there on Indian Railway? Where are their HQ Offices? Explain the
Organisational structure of Zonal Railway.
28. What are your suggestions for privatization of various activities of Railway?
29. Write briefly about the field organizations attached and subordinate offices under the
Ministry of Railways.
30. What are the objectives of Railway Management?
31. Short Notes on – RDSO , RRT , RITES , IRCTC , RVNL .
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32. What are the instructions regarding regulation of allotment of quarters to wife &
husband working at the same station?
33. When & what steps to be taken to eviction of Railway Quarter?
34. What steps are to be taken to discourage Railway employee for unauthorised retention
of Railway accommodation?
35. What is the provision regarding out of turn allotment of Railway Quarter? Describe any
four steps for retention.
36. What is provision regarding retention of Railway Quarter? Describe any four steps for
retention.
37. Write short notes on – Penal rent, Out of turn allotment of Quarter, Retention Railway
Quarter, Eviction.
38. Describe the various type of retention of Railway Quarter.
39 . What are the provisions regarding supply of cloth and payment of stitching
charges to public image categories?
40. What are the instructions regarding supply of uniform to Gangmen, Keymen, Mates
and patrolmen?
41. Explain briefly about the duty hours and periodic rest to other running staff like traveling
ticket examiners.
42. What is the procedure for computation of duty hours of Air-conditioned coach
attendants and incharges?
43. Write short notes on:
(i) Split shift (ii) Rest at out-station to loco and traffic running staff
(iii) Periodic Rest to Running staff. (iv) Tavelling spare on duty
(v) Engine & Train Attendance (vi) Breach of Rest
44. What is the difference between D.A & A.A ?
45. What are the penalties under Rule 6 of DAR ?
46. What are the compulsory deduction when under suspension ?
47. What is the subsistence allowance & companionate allowance ?
48. What are the exceptions of Rule 11 of DAR ?
49. Settlement dues to a Railway servant when remove from service.
50. What is the suspension? What is the revocation?
51. What is the provision under Rule 14(11) ?
52. Distinguished between C.R / R.S / D.S ( Compulsory Retirement , Removal of Service ,
Dismissal of Service ).
53. What are the point you should know and keep in mind -
a) When decided to impose minor penalty ?
b) When decided to impose major penalty ?
54. Distinguished between NCE & CE .
55. What is the procedure to be adopted against pending Major penalty in a selection
process ?
56. What are the procedure to be adopted against Retired employee under Major penalty
can be continued ?
57. In which cases of imposition of minor penalty , DAR enquiry is obligatory ?
58. In what cases , can a major penalty be imposed without holding DAR enquiry ?
59. What is the machinery provided for handling IR on Rlys.? Give details of the same right
from the lowest to the highest level.
60. Indicate the different tires of PNM.
61. Describe functioning of PNM at different levels on the Rlys.
62. What are the aims and objectives of PREM? What are the various tires for the same?
63. What is PREM? How does it function at zonal and divisions level?
64. Distinguished between ‘Recognised unions’ and ‘Unrecognised unions’.
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65. What are the existing instructions regarding transfer in the same grade of an office
bearers of a recognised union?
66. Short note – PNM, PREM.
67. Distinguished between – Associations and Recognised union.
68. Explain the different medical classifications under which the non-gazetted staff are
divided for appointment in Railway service? Give examples.
69. What is RELHS? Who is eligible to join the scheme? What are the benefits under
the scheme?
70. What are the important provisions regarding reimbursement of expenses of -
(a) medical treatment and (b) cost of medicines
71. Why inspection of any unit by Accounts is essential ?
72. What is a draft para ? When is it issued ? How is it dealt with by Railway
Administration ?
73. When are Part – I and Part – II audit inspection reports and Notes issued?
74. Explain briefly on the role of audit ?
75. Shorts Notes on : Audit Notes , Inspection reports , Draft para.
76. What are the cannons of Financial property ?
77. Write about the cannons of Financial property ?
78. Write short notes on Schedule of Powers .
79. Write short notes on cannons of Financial property ?
80. How many demands for grants are there ? What do not pertains to Zonal Railway ?
81. What do understand by demand for grants ? How many demands on there ? Which are
the
82. What are the demands for grants ? Enumerate them.
83. Shorts Notes : Demands for grants , Primary units of expenditure.
84. What is the four purpose for which MPP is important?
85. What is the main aspects of MPP on the Railway?
86. Importance of MPP. Describe the concept.
87. Short Notes on Machine Surrender .
88. What is rightsizing & which category is exceeded ?
89. Write four important objects of MPP.
90. Write a short note on Staff Bank.
91. Which are the basic rules that deals with fixation of pay of a Rly. Employee? Explain
92. Indicate the names of any four important annexure to a pay bills.
93. What are the compulsory deduction that have to be made from an employee’s bill when
he is under suspension and getting substinces allowance?
94. When is OT admissible and at what rates?
95. What do you understand by withholding of increment for 2 years with CE?
96. What do you understand by withholding of increment for 2 years with NCE?
97. Described briefly various types of allowances that a running staff is entitle.
98. Distinguished between Special Pay & Personal Pay.
99. Shot notes – CTG, NDA, Duel Charge Allowance, ALK, LPC, Wage Period, Dies None,
Breach of Rest Allowance, NBR.
100. Kind of Passes & their eligibility .
101. Who are the dependants under Pass rule ?
102. Describe the various kind of complimentary passes .
103. Who are the family members under Pass rule ?
104. Describe the various kind of leave admissible.
105. Short Notes on :
a. Leave not due
b. Maternity & Paternity leave
c. CCL
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d. Joining time
e. Hospital leave & Special disability leave.
106. Indicate the joining time admissible to staff and unavailed position of leave.
107. Distinguished between Extra ordinary leave & Leave not due .
108. USOP for sanction of leave to aboard officer and staff.
109. Encashment of Leave – write short notes .
110. What is the salient feature of the New Pension Scheme?
111. What are the salient features of the new defined contributory pension system?
112. Name of the four classes of ordinary pension.
113. Voluntary retirement –points kept into consideration for processing pension case.
114. Indicate two types of periods in service which are not counted for qualifying service.
115. Short note – a) family pension b) ex-gratia pension c) NPS
d) qualifying service for pensionary benefit.
116. What are the circumstances under which a pension gets more than are family pension?
117. Distinguished between family pension & ex-gratia pension.
118. What is the settlement dues payable on compulsory retirement?
119. What is the settlement dues payable on dismissal from service?
120. Explain the various steps to be taken for finding alternative employment to absorb the
medically disabled staff.
121. What are interest bearing advances? Explain the conditions of eligibility,
maximum amount admissible and recovery of any four such types of advances.
122. What are interest free advances? Explain the conditions of eligibility, maximum amount
admissible and recovery of any four such types of advances.
123. Explain the circumstances under which the Compassionate Appointments are
considered and prioritise these circumstances together with time limit with in which
the appointments are given?
124. An employee due to retire in next 20 months was found missing. His wife has filed
a report with police & FIR was also registered. Her request for appointment to herself is
received in the office. What action will you take on this request?
125. Explain the procedure followed to adjudge the suitability of a candidates for
appointment on compassionate grounds in a Group C post?
126. Write short notes on 'Appointment on compassionate Grounds'.
127. What are the principles governing fixation of pay -
(a) on first appointment (b) on transfer from higher to lower post
(c) on promotion to a post carrying higher responsibilities
(d) on promotion to an ex-cadre post (e) on repatriation from ex-cadre post.
128. Fix the pay of a Driver on pay of Rs. 6050/- w.e.f. 01.01.2005 in scale of Rs.
5000-150-8000 on his posting as Fuel Inspector in scale Rs. 5500-175-9000 w.e.f.
10.08.2005 involving higher responsibilities (a) from the date of promotion (b) from
the date of next annual increment.
129. Mr. Cruz on pay of Rs. 6200/- in scale Rs. 4500-7000 due for promotion on
05.08.2004 to 5000-8000 two months before accrual of his annual increment. What
shall be your advise to him for exercising option for fixation of pay on promotion
when he has another 15 years of service to retire.
130. Mr. A while drawing pay of Rs. 6050/- w.e.f. 01.03.2005 in scale Rs. 5000-150- 8000 was
imposed a penalty of with holding of his annual increment for a period of 02 years (NR) vide
Memorandum dated 02.03.2005. (a) Show how his pay is regulated during the period
of punishment and on restoration?
131. Explain about the scope, membership, monthly subscription, amount of insurance coverage
and the insurance/savings fund of the Group Insurance scheme, 1980 as amended from
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time to time?
132. Write short note on 'Joining Time'.
133. What are the provisions regarding grant of joining time, limits of admissibility,
commencement and extension of joining time.
134. What procedure is to be followed when an employee placed on panel is issued (a) a major
penalty charge sheet before issuing promotional order and a penalty of reduction to lower
grade for a period of 03 years (NR) is imposed? (b) a minor penalty charge sheet before
issuing promotional order and a penalty of withholding of increment is issued to become
operative from a future date.
135. What is meant by erroneous promotions? What action shall be taken when erroneous
promotion is identified?
136. Explain briefly about granting of adhoc promotions to staff in Selection and non- selection
posts?
137. Explain briefly the extant instructions to be borne in mind while setting up a
selection board for selection to the post of Ch. OS in scale Rs. 7450-11500 in
Personnel Branch?
138. Write short notes on:
(i) Ad hoc promotions (ii) Erroneous Promotions
(iii) Refusal of promotion . (iv) In situ promotions
(v) Promotion of staff against whom DAR cases are pending
(vi) Pre-promotional Courses. (vii) Pre-promotional training.
139. To whom the State Railway Pension Rules apply and to whom they do not?
140. Explain in detail the provisions regarding execution of nomination by a subscriber to the
Provident Fund.
141. What is Deposit Linked Insurance scheme? What are the provisions regarding
payment of DLI to the beneficiaries in case of death of a subscriber to the fund?
142. What are the rules for recruitment of Group C staff in Railways?
143. What is the procedure for recruitment of Group D staff in Railways?
144. What are the rules of appointment on compassionate grounds?
145. What are the rules for absorption of medically decategorised staff?
146. What are the different modes of recruitment in Railways to a Group C post?
147. What are the various concessions extended to SC/ST candidates?
148. What are the facilities extended to the SC/ST Railway employees' Associations?
149. What are the revised classifications of Railway Service and the pay limits? Describe the
procedure for recruitment against Group D services on Indian Railways.
150. What are the instructions regarding staff belonging to SC/ST communities being selected
against general merit to selection posts and non-selection posts?
151. What are the instructions regarding staff belonging to SC/ST communities being selected
against general merit to selection posts and non-selection posts?
152. Write a letter to the concerned revenue authorities requesting for verification of the caste
certificate based on the following details:
153. Explain the process of filling up of the vacancies in a selection post from the stage of
assessment of vacancies to empanelment.
154. Explain the process of filling up of the vacancies in a non-selection post.
155. Explain the provisions regarding Trade Tests for artisan categories.
156. What is the significance of a 'Seniority List'? What are the general rules for drawl
and circulation of seniority lists?
157. Mr. Y is transferred to another Railway and was relieved in the month of September, 2000. His salary
was drawn in the old unit upto the month of August, 2000. Calculate the amount required to be transferred
to the new unit based on the following data:
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(i) Opening balance as on 01.04.2000: Rs. 40,504/-
(ii) Monthly subscription to PF account: Rs. 1,000/-
(iii) Rate of interest applicable: 11% p..a.,
158. Write short notes on:
(i) Transfer in the interest of Administration
(ii) Transfer on request of the employee
(iii) Posting of Wife and husband
159. List of classification under HOER and indicate rostered hours?
160. Indicate Rostered Hours under each classification.
161. What are the classification under HOER and give two examples for each classification?
162. Distinguish between : a) Rostered Hours & Statutory Hours
b) Rest Griver & Leave Reserve.
163. When O.T. is admissible & what the rates?
164. Who can change the classification & how?
165. Prescribe the procedure to be adopted for change of clarification.
166. Short note on Job analysis.
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MODEL QUESTION
SELECTION TO THE POST OF OS(LDCE) AGAINST 20% VACANCY OF KGP DIVN.
-OBJECTIVE-
1. _______ dak will be separated from other dak and dealt with first. (urgent)
2. All covers except those addressed to officers by name or those bearing security grading will be
opened by the Central Registry. (say true or false)
3. All opened dak, will be date stamped except the covers of unopened classified dak. (say true or
false)
4. All dak receipts submitted to officers will move in pads conspicuously labeled as ______. (Dak Pad).
5. The two main parts of a file are _____ and _____ (notes and correspondence)
6. Every page in each part of the file should be consecutively numbered in separate series. (say true or false)
7. The notes or correspondence portion of the file is said to have been become bulky, if it exceeds
__________ folios. (300)
8. In the notings, the verbatim reproduction of the extracts from the paper under consideration should
not be attempted. (say true or false)
9. The dealing hand will append his full signature with date on the _____ his note. (left below).
10. An Officer will append his full signature on ________ side of the note with name, designation and date.
(right hand)
11. Pasting over a note or a portion of it is not desirable. (say true or false)
12. File system is an arrangement of papers by ________. (subjects)
13. Before opening a new file, the dealing hand will ascertain the __________ to which the paper under
consideration relates. (standard head)
14. Under classification of records class 'A' means _________ (keep and microfilm)
15. The record classified as Class 'A' does not qualify for permanent preservation for administrative purposes.
(say true or false)
16. The Class B record means ___________ . (keep but do not microfilm)
17. The class C record means __________ (keep for specified period only)
18. Ephemeral files are destroyed as soon as they are ______ old. (one year)
19. Copies of tender notices may be displayed in the offices of field executives, HOD's offices for a
period of not less than ________. (21 days)
20. For limited tenders, _______ days' notice shall be given. (Fifteen)
21. In case of quotation tenders, ______ days' notice shall be given. (seven)
22. The tender notice should be sent to CPRO's office _______ days in advance for publication in Hind and
other national dailies. (Fifty)
23. List of Approved works (LAW) costing_____________. (more than 30 lakhs & less than 50 lakhs)
24. __ is the nodal officer for preparation of Works Programme and sending it to Railway Board. (PCE)
25. SEMD accepted from the contractor borne on approved list for works costing 20 lakhs and 50 lakhs shall
be Rs. ____________-. (Rs. 50,000/-)
26. Earnest Money to be deposited along with tenders for works above Rs. 50 lakhs is Rs. ___________. (Max.
1 lakh)
27. Limited tenders are called through ________. (contractors from approved list)
28. ___________ is an example for piece work contract. (zonal works)
29. Deposit work means _________. (Works of other Government Department done by Railways)
30. Urgency certificate is necessary in the case of __________. (repairs to damages to line caused by floods)
31. PHOD is competent to approve calling of limited tenders of __________. (more than 25 lakhs and upto
Rs. 50 lakhs)
32. CAOR is competent to approve calling of limited tenders of _________. (more than Rs. 50 lakhs and
upto Rs. 75 lakhs)
33. The monetary slab for Class D contractor is ________. (upto Rs. 10 lakhs)
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34. The monetary slab for Class C contractor is ________. (more than 10 lakhs & upto Rs. 25 lakhs)
35. The monetary slab for Class B contractor is ________. (more than 25 lakhs & upto Rs. 50 lakhs)
36. The authority competent to approve for works of urgent nature before calling
special limited tenders under two pocket system of tendering is _______. (GM)
37. The authority competent to approve for works of special nature before calling special limited tenders
under two pocket system of tendering is _______. (PHOD)
38. Minimum number of contractors/agencies for calling quotations is ___. (three)
39. For calling single tender finance concurrence is necessary. (say true or false)
40. Preliminary Works Progaramme is divided into ______ volumes. (four)
41. LSWP works costing less than 30 lakhs shall be approved by ________. (DRM)
42. List of works costing more than 15 lakhs and below 30 lakhs require the administrative approval
of __________. (PHOD/HOD)
43. LsWP works costing less than 15 lakhs require administrative approval of ____. (DRM)
44. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'Passenger amenities' is _________. (CCM)
45. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'Tack Renewal Works' is _________. (PCE)
46. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'Workshops including production units' is
_________. (PCE, CME,CBE)
47. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'New Line Works' is _________. (COM)
48. Sponsoring authority for works under plan head of 'Road Safety Works - ROB/RUB' is _________.
(PCE)
49. Stock verification for T&P items is done once in two years. (say true or false)
50. PAC items are purchased on ________ tender basis. (single)
51. In a rate contract, not only rate but also quantity of item is fixed.(say true or false)
52. Sales Tax/VAT is applicable on packing charges. (say true or false)
53. Full form of PAC is _____________. (Propriety Articles Certificate
54. Railway Staff College is situated at __________. (Vadodara)
55. Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering is situated at ______. (Pune)
56. Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering & Telecommunications is situated at __________.
(Secunderabad)
57. Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering is situated at _____________.
(Jamalpur)
58. Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering is situated at ________.(Nasik)
59. Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical & Electrical Engineering also provides Apprenticeship training to
the __________ Apprentices. (Special Class Railway)
60. RRT has no jurisdiction in respect of classification of any commodity. (say true or false)
61. Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent during sick leave. (indefinite period)
62. Railway quarters can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent on resignation/ removal/ dismissal
from service. (one month)
63. Quarter can be retained for ____ on normal rent in the event of death. (24 months)
64. Quarter can be retained for a period of _____ on normal rent on retirement. (four)
65. Railway quarters can be retained during entire period of leave ex India provided that it is certified that he would
be _____. (reposted to his original place on expiry of his leave)
66. Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type IV quarter is Rs. ______ p.m. (Rs. 35/-)
67. Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type III quarter is Rs. ______ p.m. (Rs. 25/-)
68. Water charges recoverable from a Group C employee for Type II quarter is Rs. __ p.m. (Rs. 15/-)
69. Retention of Railway accommodation on medical grounds beyond the permissible period as a special case
requires the approval of __________. (Railway Board)
70. Railway employees in other than public image categories should be given cloth instead of stitched uniform.
(say true or false)
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71. Assistant Guards are included in the public image categories for purpose of supply of cloth for uniform.
(say true or false)
72. Luminiscent vests may be issued as T&P items to staff in the category of yard masters. (say true or
false).
73. Canteen staff are to be supplied woolen pant/salwar once in ______ years. (two)
74. In case of non-running staff, efforts should be made to provide at least one break in continuous night duty in
______ days in addition to weekly rest. (10)
75. When a worker not provided with crew rest van travels on duty as passenger, all time spent for traveling beyond
a radius of 08 kms from place of his duty shall be treated as _______. (duty)
76. When a worker does not travel on any day beyond a radius of 08 kms from the place of duty, the time
spent as passenger on duty will not count at duty. (say true or false)
77. When a worker is provided with crew rest van, the time spent as passenger on duty will not count as
duty. (say true or false) xxx
78. Running staff should not normally be away from headquarters for more than ________ days at a stretch.
(three or four days)
79. Night duty should not normally be performed by the running staff for more than _________ nights at a stretch.
(six)
80. Loco and Traffic Running staff are allowed ______ hours rest at headquarters after a running duty of less
than 08 hours. (12 hours)
81. Loco and Traffic Running staff are allowed ______ hours rest at headquarters after a running duty of 08
hours or more. (16 hours)
82. ________form is used for revocation of suspension.
83. ________ form is used for imposition of minor penalty.
84. ________ form is used for imposition of major penalty.
85. ________ form is used for nomination of Inquiry Officer.
86. ________ form is used to appoint a presenting officer.
87. Subsistence allowance is equal to leave salary, which the employee would have drawn had he been on
_______________.
88. A retired Railway servant can act as a defense helper (say true or false)
89. Retired Railway servants cannot act as defense helper in more than ______ cases at a time.
90. The defense helper should be from the same Railway as that of the delinquent employee. (say true or
false)
91. An official of a recognized trade union may assist in more than three pending disciplinary cases. (say
true or false)
92. No appeal shall be entertained unless preferred within ______ days.
93. The period of 45 days for preferring an appeal is reckoned from _______. (the date on which a copy of
the order appealed against is delivered to the appellant)
94. The appeal against an order of the disciplinary authority can be preferred by the appellant in his own name. (say
true or false)
95. Inquiry is not required to be held in case of DAR proceedings for minor penalty.
96. (say true or false)
97. The disciplinary authority can never act as an inquiry officer. (say true or false)
98. A typical charge sheet for major penalty necessarily contains _____ annexures.
99. A trade union official can act as ___________ in a DAR Case.
100. Trade Union member can act as Defence counsel in a DAR case against Gazetted Officers. (say true or false)
101. Rule 13 of D&A Rules deals with common proceedings. (say true or false)
102. If the charge is unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the witnesses.
103. In case the alleged charge is unauthorized absence, _________ can be one of the listed documents.
104. The ten days time allowed for submission of the written statement may be extended by the
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__________ authority, if he satisfies that there is enough justification to do so.
105. Show cause notice is necessary before imposing minor penalty after dropping the major penalty proceedings.
(say true or false)
106. Recognised trade union official can assist a gazetted railway servant to present hiscase before the
107. inquiring authority. (say true or false).
108. The authority competent to take a decision in regard to the request for allotment of land for construction of
branch offices of a recognized union is ______ . (GM)
109. In case of transfer of office bearer to another office located at a distance in the same area at the same
station, there is no need to give notice to the union before hand. (say true or false)
110. In case of transfer of office bearers from one section to another in the same office, there is no need to give notice
to the union before hand. (say true or false)
111. The procedure laid down for transfer of office bearers need to be followed even in the case of employees to be
transferred on SPE/Vigilance cases.(say true or false)
112. Political subjects can also be discussed at the meetings of recognized unions in the Railway premises for
which permission is granted. (say true or false)
113. Administration may insist on the copy of agenda of the meetings of recognized unions before granting
permission. (say true or false)
114. A railway telephone may be provided to the branch offices of the recognized unions also. (say true or
false)
115. Group B of the vision test is in the interest of _______ (employee himself and the fellow workers)
116. Group B of the vision is subdivided into ____ classes. (two)
117. Give two examples of staff medically tested for fitness in B/1 class: Gangmen, Gang mates, Trains
clerks, P Way Mistries, TXRs, RPF staff.
118. TTEs are medically tested for fitness in _______ class. (B/2)
119. Periodical Medical Examination of vision test in classes A/1, A/2 and A/3 is held once in ________ years after
the age of 45 years. (a year)
120. Periodical Medical Examination of vision test for footplate staff of high speed trains should be held once
in ______ years after the age of 40 years. (a year)
121. Periodical Medical Examination in B/1 and B/2 classes is held at the age of _____ years and again at the age of
______ years. (45 and 55)
122. Medical allowance is granted @ Rs. 100/- p.m. to Railway Pensioner/Family Pensioner residing beyond
______ away from Railway Hospitals.
123. ____ qualifying service in the Railways is necessary for joining RELH Scheme.
124. Supply of diet is free to employees whose basic pay does not exceed Rs. ______.
125. Welfare Inspectors are medically tested for fitness in ______ class. (C/1)
126. What does PAC stand for?
127. In how many parts audit inspection reports are issued?
128. Who is the head of audit office in zonal railways?
129. No authority should exercise its powers of sanctioning expenditure to pass an order which will directly or
indirectly be to its advantage. (say true or false)
130. Normally, public money should not be utilized for the benefit of a section of the community. (say true or false)
131. The demands shall be for _______ expenditure. (gross).
132. The Demands No. 1,2 & 3 are in the nature of __________. (general on cost).
133. The Demands for Grants are to be presented in ______ parts. (two)
134. Each part of the Demands for grants will have 3 sub-division called _______, ________ and _________.
(sub-heads, detailed heads and primary units).
135. The expenditure under Repairs and Maintenance of Plant & Equipment of all Departments shall be
charged to Demand No. ________. (7-Abstract E)
136. Operating Expenses of Rolling Stock & Equipment shall be charged to ______. (Demand No, 8)
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137. Voted expenditure requires approval of Parliament. (say true or false)
138. Vote on Account represents Grants sanctioned by the Parliament in advance for the short period. (say true
or false)
139. Annexure-J indicates statement of mis-classification. (say true or false)
140. Annexure-K indicates defects in budget. (say true or false)
141. Demand 3-13 is known as ordinary working expenses. (say true or false)
142. Salary of CPO is booked to Demand No. 3 (say true or false)
143. Salary of GM is booked to Demand No. 3 ( say true or false)
144. Gazetted post is a post to which appointment is made by ________________.
145. Lien means the _______ of a Railway servant to hold a post to which he has been appointed on regular basis.
146. A supernumerary post is a shadow post to which no duties are attached. (say true or false).
147. A supernumerary post should be created for indefinite periods. (say true or false)
148. A supernumerary post, on vacation by the incumbent, can be filled by another officer in the order of
seniority. (say true or false)
149. An employee who has acquired lien on a post retains the lien on that post while under suspension. (say true or
false)
150. Trip allowance is paid to the Running staff working on ______________ and ____________ trains for
completion of trips.
151. _________ % of the running allowance is reckoned as ay for passes/PTOs.
152. _________ staff who are detained at any station other than their HQrs., due to an accident for a period exceeding
08 hours shall be paid accident allowance.
153. NPA stands for __________ which is paid to ______________.
154. Employees joining training institutions as faculty members are entitled to ______ allowance.
155. Dual charge allowance will be admissible only if the additional charge is held for a period exceeding _______
days. (45 days)
156. For the purpose of dual charge allowance, the aggregate of the pay and additional pay shall not exceed Rs.
_____________ p.m. (26,000/-)
157. Transport allowance shall not be included for the purpose of computation of Overtime allowance. (say
true or false)
158. Blind and orthopaedically handicapped employees are not entitled to transport allowance if they are
availing I Class residential Card pass. (say true or false)
159. A railway servant is not entitled to HRA if his spouse is allotted with Government accommodation at the same
station. (say true or false)
160. Breach of rest allowance is paid to running staff. (say true or false)
161. Night duty allowance is payable to all Group C employees. (say true or
162. Extra Ordinary Leave on medical grounds does not qualify for grant of increments. (say true or
false)
163. Casual leave can be combined with joining time. (say true or false)
164. Workshop staff are allowed to take leave for periods of not less than ________ (half a day).
165. Leave for half a day means authorised absence from duty for over _______ (period) before interval or
the second period of any day on which the workshop remains open for both the periods. (half an hour)
166. The concession of granting half day leave to workshop staff is limited to ____ occasions in a year. (six)
167. In a year ______ days of CL is entitled to an employee appointed in an administrative office
168. Paternity leave came into effect from _________________.
169. Study leave shall count as service for pension. (say true or false)
170. Apprentice Mechanics are entitled to leave on half stipend on medical certificate for a period not exceeding
_______ days in any year of apprenticeship. (20 days).
171. Trade apprentices may be granted leave on full stipend for a period not exceeding ______ days in any year of
apprenticeship. (12 days).
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172. Special disability leave shall be combined with any other kind of leave (say true or false).
173. Maximum period of Special Disability Leave granted in consequence of any one disability shall be ____ .
174. Leave salary payable during the first 120 days of Special Disability leave shall be equal to leave salary while on
_____________.
175. Maximum of the maternity leave admissible is _______ days.
176. Maternity Leave can be combined with any other kind of leave (say true or false)
177. Total period of Maternity Leave on account of miscarriage/abortion should be restricted to ______ days in
entire career of a female servant.
178. Leave not due is debited against the ________ leave he is likely to earn subsequently.
179. In case a railway servant who has been granted leave not due resigns from service
180. or permitted to retire voluntarily, the retirement/resignation takes effect from ____________.
181. If the retirement is ____________ on the railway employee, no leave salary for the period of leave not
due availed shall be recovered from the employee.
182. The leave on half average pay shall be credited to the leave account of a railway servant on 1st of
____________ and ____________ at the rate of 10 days each in advance.
183. In the year of appointment, LHAP shall be credited to the leave account of an employee at the rate of
____ days for each completed calendar month of service.
184. A railway servant other than one who is working in a railway school shall be entitled to _______ days
leave on average pay in a calendar year.
185. The leave account of every railway servant shall be credited with leave on average pay in advance in
______ instaments of ______ each on the first day of __________ and _______ every calendar year.
186. The leave at the credit of a railway servant at the close of every half year shall be carried forward to next half
year subject to the condition that the closing balance does not exceed ______ days.
187. Ordinarily the maximum leave on average pay that may be granted at a time to a railway servant shall be
_______ days.
188. Leave ordinarily begins on the day on which _____________ is effected and ends on the day preceding that in
which _________.
189. CL shall not be combined with any other kind of leave since it is not __________.
190. A railway servant on leave may not take any service in India without previous sanction of
______________.
191. Under Pension Rules, Child means son or unmarried daughter of a railway servant under __________ years of
age.(25)
192. Under Pension Rules, minor means a person who has not completed the age of _______ years. (18)
193. In case of a Railway servant who retires voluntarily after completing 20 years of qualifying service, the date
of retirement shall be treated as _________. (non- working day).
194. The day on which a railway servant retires shall be treated as his last working day. (say true or false)
195. A railway servant shall not earn two pensions in the same service or post at the same time. (say true or
false)
196. No gratuity shall be paid to the railway servant until the conclusion of the departmental or judicial
proceedings. (say true or false)
197. If the departmental proceedings are initiated for imposing any of the penalties specified in clauses
________________ of Rule 6 of RS (D&A) Rules, 1968, the payment of gratuity shall be authorised to be paid.
(Clause i, ii, iii(a) and iv).
198. No recovery shall be made if the pension finally sanctioned is less than the provisional pension. (say
true or false)
199. A Group 'A' officer shall obtain previous sanction of the Government to accept any commercial employment
before the expiry of ______ years from the date of retirement. (two)
200. All railway servants shall obtain previous sanction of the Government to accept any commercial
employment after retirement. (say true or false)
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201. Period of employment in a part-time capacity shall also constitute service for pensionary benefits. (say
true or false)
202. In case where railway accommodation is not vacated by a railway servant after superannuation or after
cessation of service, full amount of retirement gratuity shall be withheld. (say true or false)
203. A temporary railway servant who seeks voluntary retirement after completion of _______ years of service shall
be eligible for retirement pension. (20)
204. Terminal gratuity shall not be admissible to a probationer discharged for failure to pass the prescribed test. (say
true or false)
205. Service rendered as substitute shall be counted for pensionary benefits if followed by absorption in a regular post
without any break. (say true or false)
206. The period of suspension shall qualify for pensionary benefits only if it had been treated as ________ . (duty or
leave due as the case may be)
207. A pension granted or awarded under the Railway Services (Pension) Rules, 1993 shall not be less than
_____________ per month. (Rs. 1250/- + DP=Rs. 1875/-)
208. A railway servant who is dismissed or removed from service shall forfeit his pension and gratuity. (say
true or false)
209. The authority competent to dismiss or remove a railway servant from service sanction compassionate
allowance in case deserving of special consideration. (say true or false)
210. The compassionate allowance shall not exceed ______ of pension or gratuity or both. (2/3)
211. Minimum qualifying service for accepting request for voluntary retirement is ________ years.
212. Maximum qualifying service reckoned for fixing the pension is _________ years.
213. One may choose to receive monthly pension by money order (say true or false)
214. The account for drawl of pension can a joint account with wife. (say true or false)
215. An employee removed from service is entitled for pension (say true or false)
216. The qualifying service required for pensionable staff to accept voluntary retirement is _______ years.
217. The minimum Pension is ________________.
218. _____% of pension can be commuted on retirement.
219. The relief is payable on ___________________ pension.
220. In case no nomination exists and if there are one or more surviving members of the family, the gratuity shall be
paid to all such members in _____ shares. (equal)
221. The minimum family pension payable shall be _______ % of the minimum of the scale. (30%).
222. The Pension Scheme was introduced in Railway on ______________.
223. The Family Pension Scheme was introduced in Railways on ____________.
224. The amount of service gratuity shall be calculated at the rate of ______ month's emoluments for every
completed six-monthly period of service. (half)
225. Maximum Pension is limited to ___________ per month.
226. Minimum service to get the eligibility for pension is __________ years. (ten)
227. In calculating the length of qualifying service fraction of a year equal to 3 months and above shall be treated as a
completed one half year. (say true or false)
228. The amount of pension finally determined shall be in whole rupees. (say true or false).
229. The committee to assess suitability of medically decategorised staff for absorption in alternative posts should
include a medical officer. (say true or false)
230. Absorption of medically incapacitated staff in alternative posts in departments other than the one in which
he was working at the time of incapacitation should be considered only if it is not possible to bsorb him in other
wings of the same department. (say true of false).
231. The medically decategorised/incapacitated staff should be shifted to some other post with the same pay
scale and service benefits. (say true or false)
232. Modification of the scheme of absorption of medically decategorised staff in alternative employment is
necessitated due to the enactment of ________. [Persons with Disabilities (Equal Opportunities,
14/Page 20
Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995]
233. No officer has the authority to permit the Railway servant if he is declared medically unfit for the post
held by him. (say true or false)
234. The Railway servants declared medically unfit cease to perform the duties of the posts held by them from
_________. (the date they are medically declared unfit)
235. If a medically decategorised Railway servant cannot be immediately absorbed in any suitable alternative post,
he may be kept on a ______________ post of equal grade. (special supernumerary post)
236. Absorption of medically decategorised staff in other departments be considered only when it is not
possible to absorb them in ___________ of the same department. (other wings)
237. The committee to assess suitability of the medically decategorised staff for absorption in alternative posts
should include a medical officer. (say true or false)
238. Employees declared medically disabled/decategorised on or after _________ upto _________ and
absorbed in lower grades than the one held by them on regular basis may be reviewed and decided at the
level of GM. (07.02.96, 28.4.99)
239. The maximum instalments permissible for recovery of cycle advance are ______.
240. Cycle advance at II time is permissible after _________ years.
241. Scooter/Motor Cycle advance is admissible to Railway employees drawing Pay plus DP of Rs.
____________ or __________.
242. The amount of Scooter/Motor cycle advance payable shall be ________ or _________ or
__________whichever is less on the first occasion.
243. Motor Car advance is admissible to employees drawing Pay plus DP of Rs. ____.
244. The amount of Motor Car advance payable shall be ________ or _________ whichever is less on the first
occasion.
245. Maximum instalments permissible for recovery of Motor Car advance are _____.
246. Second or subsequent Motor car advance is restricted to _________ or __________ or _________
whichever is less.
247. Motor Car advance to SAG officers can be sanctioned by _______________.
248. The amount of funeral advance payable to the families of Railway servants is ________ or
____________ whichever is less.
249. The funeral advance is recoverable in _________ instalment/s from __________.
250. Fan advance can be sanctioned to a Jr. Clerk. (say true or false)
251. Advance on transfer is admissible if the transfer is in _______ interest.
252. The interest recovered on transfer advance is __________.
253. The amount of transfer advance payable is _________.
254. The pay for the purpose of transfer advance is ____________.
255. The transfer advance is recoverable in _________________.
256. Transfer advance can be drawn at the old station or new station (say true or false)
257. The transfer advance is not admissible in mutual transfers (say true or false).
258. The advance of TA payable shall be _______________.
259. The advance of TA is adjusted through _____________.
260. The flood advance is recoverable in __________ instalments.
261. Flood advance is permissible on certification about floods by _______ authorities.
262. Festival advance is payable to staff drawing pay of RS. __________.
263. Rate of interested collected on Motor Car advance is ___________.
264. Table fan advance is admissible to __________ staff only.
265. The table fan advance admissible is _________ or _________ whichever is least.
266. CG appointee to a post of technician/Gr.III with SSC should undergo _______ months of training.
267. ______ Class pass is given to wards of deceased employee when called for screening.
268. ___________ is competent to consider the requests received after two years of the first son/first daughter
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attained the age of majority.
269. Who is competent to relax the condition of minimum educational qualification?
270. Upper age relaxation in the case of Group D on compassionate grounds is with in the powers of CPO only. (say
true or false)
271. Widows upto the age of 35 years are only to be considered for compassionate appointments. (say true or
false)
272. Cases of CG appointments of RPF staff are to be considered in RPF department only. (say true or false)
273. EOL on medical grounds shall be considered as qualifying service for granting increment. (say true or
false)
274. Period of suspension shall be qualifying for increments if _____________ is allowed for such period. (full
pay)
275. Unpaid holidays enjoyed by workshop staff wil not count for increment unless __________________.
(converted in to LAP/LHAP at employee's request)
276. Stagnation increment is not taken into account for fixation of pay on promotion. (say true or false)
277. The stagnation increment shall be equal to ________. (increment last drawn).
278. Maximum __________ increments can be granted on stagnation account. (three).
279. The services of a substitute for allowing annual increment shall be counted from the date of _______________.
(attaining temporary status).
280. The nursing staff possessing b.Sc., degree and enjoying the benefit of two advance increments in IV
PC Scales as on 1.1.96 shall be fixed in the revised scale excluding the quantum of tw advance
increments. (say true or false).
281. The two advance increments enjoyed by nursing staff possessing B.Sc., degree are allowed in V PC as additional
increments at the revised rates. (say true or false)
282. Allowance in lieu of Kilometerage is admissible to the medically decategorised drivers drafted to perform
the duties of Power Controllers/Crew Controllers. (say true or false)
283. The benefit of addition in basic pay for computation of retirement benefits admissible to running staff
is admissible to the medically decategorised drivers drafted to work as Power Controllers/Crew Controllers.
(say true or false)
284. Grant of officiating pay to the incumbents of the vacancies of short duration is admissible subject to the
condition that the vacancy lasts over _______ days and is caused by factors that could not be foreseen. (30)
285. Option for fixation of pay under R.1313, IREC., Vol.II is not admissible to Gp. B officers on promotion to Gp.
A Sr. Scale on ad hoc basis. (say true or false)
286. Whenever a promotion order is issued to any railway employee a clause should be incorporated in the promotion
order regarding availability of option for fixation of pay. (say true or false)
287. Group B officers who acquired the higher qualifications on or after __________ are governed by one time
lumpsum incentive scheme. (05.07.95)`
288. The minimum fixation benefit of _______ on promotion is allowed w.e.f. 01.01.1996. (Rs. 100/-).
289. Advance increments granted to sports persons are to be treated as pay for ______ purposes. (all).
290. The advance increments granted to stenographers for acquiring higher speed in shorthand shall be termed
as special allowance w.e.f. ____________. (the date on which the employee draws pay in the revised scale of
pay).
291. The services of a substitute for allowing annual increment shall be counted from the date of _______________.
(attaining temporary status).
292. The nursing staff possessing b.Sc., degree and enjoying the benefit of two advance increments in IV
PC Scales as on 1.1.96 shall be fixed in the revised scale excluding the quantum of tw advance
increments. (say true or false).
293. The rates of subscription under the new Group Insurance scheme are Rs. ____, Rs. ______, Rs. ______
and Rs. _______ in respect of Group D, Group C, Group and Group A staff respectively.
294. The subscription for Group Insurance scheme will be apportioned @ _____ % is Insurance Fund and _____ %
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is Savings Fund. (30%, 70%).
295. Under the Group Insurance scheme, the apportionment of savings/insurance fund @ 30% and 70% respectively
came into force w.e.f. ____________. (01.01.1988)
296. The insurance coverage under the Group Insurance scheme to the families of Group D, Group C, Group B
and Group A staff is Rs. ______, Rs. ________, Rs. _______ and Rs. _________ respectively.
297. A subscriber having a family can nominate anybody to receive the insurance money under Group
Insurance scheme. (say true or false)
298. In case an employee's whereabouts are not known, the accumulation from the savings fund becomes
payable under Group Insurance scheme to the nominee/heirs after __________ period. (one year)
299. It is legally permissible to adjust the Government dues against the payments due to the employees/nominees
under the Group Insurance scheme. (say true or false)
300. A railway servant on joining time shall be regarded as on _______ (leave/duty/on line/joining)
301. Joining time pay is equal to the pay which was drawn before ______________ in the old post. (relinquishment
of charge)
302. During joining time, a railway servant shall be entitled to CCA and HRA at the rates applicable to the
________. (old station/new station)
303. The quantum of joining time admissible for transfer involving less than 1000 Kms is __________.
304. If the distance between the old headquarters and the new headquarters is more than 1,000 Kms., the
joining time admissible is __________ days. (12 days).
305. If the distance between the old headquarters and the new headquarters is more than 2,000 Kms., the
joining time admissible is __________ days. (15 days).
306. If the distance between the old headquarters and new headquarters is more than 2,000 Kms., and he
travel is permitted by air, the joining time admissible is __________ days. (12 days).
307. Distance means the weighted mileage for which fare is charged by the Railways in certain ghat/hill sections.
(say true or false)
308. Extension of Joining time beyond the limits can be granted upto a maximum limit of ___ days. (30 days).
309. Selection for appointment to Group B should be held once in________ years (2)
310. Selection committee for selection to the Group B posts shall be constituted with the orders of _________. (
General Manager)
311. The selection committee for selection the Group B posts shall consists of ____ HODs including
__________ and the __________. (3 HODs, CPO and the HOD of the department concerned)
312. If none of the committee members for selection to Group B posts belongs to SC/ST communities,
another officer belonging to SC/ST community not below the rank of ___________ shall be nominated. (JA
Grade)
313. In case of selection to a Group B post the assessment of vacancies shall for ______ years. (02)
314. ______ % of the cadre including construction reserve shall be added while assessing vacancies for
selection to a Group B post. (20%)
315. Notwithstanding the position that the seniors do not fulfil the requisite minimum service conditions, they are
eligible to appear for selection to a Group B post if _________ . ( a junior is considered by virtue of
satisfying the relevant condition)
316. In a Group B selection for one vacancy, the zone of consideration shall be _____. (05 employees)
317. In a Group B selection for two vacancies, the zone of consideration shall be ____. (08 employees)
318. The selection to the Group B posts is based on _____ (a written test to adjudge the professional ability, viva
voce and assessment of records by selection committee)
319. For selection to Group B posts other than accounts Department, the maximum marks and qualifying
marks under the head 'Professional ability' are _______ and ______ respectively. (50, 30)
320. For selection to the Group B posts other than accounts department, the maximum marks and qualifying marks
under the head 'Personality, Leadership etc.,' are ___ and ___ respectively. (25, 15)
321. For selection to the Group B posts other than Accounts Department, the maximum marks and
17/Page 20
qualifying marks under the head 'Record of Service' are ____ and ______ respectively. (25, 15)
322. In written test for selection to the Group B posts, the questions on Official Language Policy and Rules
should not be compulsory. (say true or false)
323. Financial upgradation under the ACP scheme shall be given to the next higher grade in accordance with
the __________ in a cadre. (existing hierarchy)
324. In the absence of defined hierarchical grades, financial upgradation shall be given in the ___________ standard
pay scales. (immediate next higher)
325. The financial upgradation under ACP scheme shall be purely _______ to the employee and has no
relevance to his/her ________ position. (personal, seniority)
326. A senior employee can claim for stepping up of pay on the ground that the junior has got higher pay scale under
the ACP scheme. (say true or false)
327. On upgradation under ACP scheme, pay of an employee shall be fixed under normal Rules under
1313(1)(a)(i) of IREC, Vol.II subject to a minimum financial benefit of Rs. ______. (100)
328. The balance at the credit of a subscriber holding a post in scale of pay maximum of which is Rs.9,000/- or
more but less than Rs.12,000/- shall not have fallen below ____ to make him eligible for payment of
additional amount. (Rs. 15,000/-)
329. The balance at the credit of a subscriber holding a post in scale of pay maximum of which is Rs.3,500/- or
more but less than Rs.9,000/- shall not have fallen below ____ to make him eligible for payment of
additional amount. (Rs.10,000/-)
330. The balance at the credit of a subscriber holding a post in scale of pay maximum of which is less than Rs.
3,500/- shall not have fallen below Rs._________ to make him eligible for payment of additional amount. (Rs.
6,000/-)
331. Part final withdrawl of ____ % of the balance at credit of a subscriber is permitted if applied within 12 months
before retirement on superannuation. (90)
332. Part final withdrawl of _____ % of balance at the credit of a subscriber within 12 months before retirement is
permitted without assigning any reason. (90)
333. The rate of interest on SRPF balances for the year 2004-05 is ______% p.a. (8%) The amount of Deposit
linked insurance payable to the successors even if the death of the subscriber is by committing suicide. (say
true or false)
334. The amount of deposit linked insurance is payable to successors in case of missing employees whose
whereabouts are not known after a lapse of ____ years. (7)
335. There are __________ Railway Recruitment Boards in the country.
336. The quota of reservation for recruitment of ex-servicemen in Group C is _____.
337. _________ is competent to appoint a Group D servant on compassionate grounds.
338. __________ is the competent authority to relax or modify the age limits and educational qualifications
prescribed for recruitment to non-gazetted posts.
339. __________ is the minimum educational qualification for appoint to Group D posts in Engineering
Department.
340. The minimum educational qualification prescribed for a Group D employee in TTM Organisation is
_________.
341. The minimum educational qualification required for cultural quota appointment besides certificate course in
music/dance etc., is a graduation. (say true or false)
342. Who is competent to declare a post as suitable for appointment of physically handicapped persons?
343. Post of SE/PW can be filled by physically disabled person. (say true or false) The quota meant for each group of
physically challenged, i.e., hearing impaired,
344. visually challenged and orthopedically disabled can be exchanged at the end of three years. (say true or
false)
345. Can a candidate to be appointed on compassionate grounds but found to be orthopaedically disabled be
charged against the quota for physically handicapped? (say true or false)
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346. ________% of the vacancies of Sr. Clerks are filled by promotion from amongst the Junior Clerks in the order of
seniority.
347. ________% of the vacancies of Sr. Clerks are filled by LDCE from amongst graduates working as Clerks
in Scale Rs. 3050-4590. (13 1/3 %) _____% of vacancies of Sr. Clerks are filled by Direct Recruitment.
348. Promotion through LDCE to an extent of 20% of the _________ (vacancies/posts) in the category of Office
Superintendent/Gr.II has been introduced.
349. A matriculate recruited as Artisan (Skilled III) has to undergo the period of training for ___ years.
350. In direct recruitment ______ vacancies of Group D _____ vacancies of Group C ae reserved for ex-servicemen.
351. In case of blind, deaf and orthopaedically handicapped relaxation in age shall be granted upto ____ years.
352. The annual quota for recruitment of Sports persons for Group D on Zonal Hqrs.,
353. S.C. Railway through open advertisements is _______ (4).
354. The annual quota for recruitment of Sports persons for Group D on each division of S.C. Railway through open
advertisements is _______ (3)
355. The vacancies under sports quota can be carried forward. (say true or false).
356. The annual quota for S.C. Railway for recruitment of sportspersons to Group C under talent scouting is
______ (10)
357. The annual quota for recruitment of sportspersons to Group D for each division under talent scouting is
______ (2)
358. The annual quota for Zonal Hqrs., of S.C. Railway for recruitment of sportspersons to Group D
under talent scouting is ______ (2)
359. The annual quota for recruitment against Scouts & Guides in Group C for S.C. Railway is _ (02).
360. The annual quota for recruitment against Scouts & Guides in Group D for each division of this Railway
is ______ (02).
361. The annual quota for recruitment against Cultural events in Group C for S.C. Railway is ___ (02).
362. As a concession to SC/ST employees _________% of vacant quarters should be earmarked in allotment of
quarters.
363. A single vacancy in a selection may be reserved for SC only. (say true or false)
364. Single post in a __ cadre may be filled on regular basis without applying reservation. (single post)
365. Instructions regarding post based roster for promotion in Group C and D categories are also
apply for promotion from Group C to ____ and within ____ categories. (Group B, Group B)
366. The %age reservation for SC/ST/OC for each Railway in recruitment of all Group C and will be _____, ______
and ______ respectively. (15%, 7.5% and 27%)
367. As and when the Railway servants are summoned by the National Commission to attend any hearing, they may
be spared as on duty. (say true or false)
368. When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-reserved posts, the applications of candidates with only
_________ as postal charges may be allowed. (Rs. 10/-)
369. When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-reserved posts, age relaxation is not allowed. (say true or
false)
370. When SC/ST candidates apply for the non-reserved posts, are they eligible for the free pass facility? (Yes)
371. The ceiling of _______ % reservation for SC/ST on total number of vacancies will apply only on
vacancies that arise in the ________ year. (50, current)
372. In respect of backlog/cary forward of vacancies, the ceiling of 50% will not apply. (say true or false)
373. After introduction of post based reservation, it is still permissible to fill up a post reserved for ST by a SC
candidate by exchange. (say true or false)
374. There is a ban on dereservation of vacancies reserved for SCs,ST and OBCs in direct recruitment. (say
true or false)
375. If the vacancies reserved for SCs/STs/OBCs cannot be filled recruitment, they shall be carried forward as
backlog vacancies to the subsequent recruitment years without any limitation. (say true or false)
376. The income limit to exclude socially advanced persons from the purview of reservation for OBCs has
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been revised to ______ gross annual income. (2.5 laks)
377. The duration of pre-selection coaching for SC/ST candidates for selection to Group B posts should be for
_________ weeks. (3 to 4 weeks)
378. SC/ST employees empanelled through selection/LDCE without relaxation will be treated as _________ vis a
vis those SC/ST employees empanelled with relaxed standards. (senior)
379. The candidates who secure __________ % of marks or above in aggregate shall be classified as outstanding in a
selection.
380. For selection to the post in scale Rs. 5500-9000, the selection board shall consist of ______________.
381. In case of selection to the post of Teachers the positive act of selection consist of both ________ and
_________. (written test and viva voce test)
382. A reasonable _________ notice should be sent to the candidates before the date of examination. (advance)
383. The assessment of vacancies for a selection post will include the existing vacancies and those
anticipated during the course of next ________ months. (15)
384. In case of selection to ex-cadre posts, actual vacancies plus those anticipated in the next ________
should be taken into account for the purpose of assessment. (02 years)
385. The vacancies that arise due to likely acceptance of voluntary retirement/resignation shall
be counted as anticipated for assessment of vacancies. (say true or false)
386. In case of filling up of selection posts in safety categories, if it becomes necessary to hold the next selection
within a gap of six months, the same may be held with the personal approval of ____________. (General
Manager)
387. Selection Board may be constituted under the orders of _______ or _________ or _______ not lower than a
DRM/ADRM/CWM. (GM, HOD, other competent authority)
388. Maximum marks allotted in selections to posts within Group C for professional ability shall be
__________ (50)
389. Maximum marks allotted in selections to posts within Group C for record of service shall be __________
(30)
390. Maximum marks allotted in selections to posts within Group C for seniority shall be __________ (20)
391. The qualifying marks for professional ability in selections to posts within Group C shall be ______. (30)
392. At the end of one year if the employee again refuses promotion at the outstation, his name may be deleted from
the panel. 9say true or false)
393. Deletion of the name from the panel, due to refusal of promotion at outstation at the end of one year of
refusal period, shall be automatic and no approval is needed. (say true or false)
394. The employee refused promotion will rank junior to those promoted from the same panel earlier to him.
(say true or false)
395. Trade Test may comprise of both oral and practical to be held simultaneously. (say true or false)
396. There shall be no separate oral test not forming part of trade test for artisan categories for the purpose of
screening them. (say true or false)
397. Exemption may be given from passing a prescribed promotional course in deserving cases. (say true
or false)
398. The seniority of a Railway servant, who is reduced to a lower service, grade or post for an unspecified
period, should be determined by ________ without regard to the service rendered by him in such service,
grade or post. (the date of re- promotion)
399. Where staff is appointed to Railway service below the prescribed minimum age limit, the underage service
will also count for the purpose of seniority. (say true or false)
400. The seniority of the medically decategorised staff will be fixed with reference to the __________. (length of
service in equivalent grade prior to medical decategorisation)
401. When a post is filled by considering staff of different seniority units, the total length of continuous
service in the ______ or ________ grade held by the employees shall be the determining factor for
assigning seniority. (same, equivalent)
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402. While deciding the relative seniority of employee in an intermediate grade belonging to different
seniority units, _________ service only should be taken into account. (non-fortuitous)
403. Non fortuitous service means the service rendered after the date of ________ after _________. (regular
promotion, due process)
404. In case no initial training is prescribed, the seniority of the candidates recruited through RRB is fixed in
the order of ______. (merit assigned by RRB)
405. When two or more candidates are declared of the equal merit at one and the same examination, their relative
seniority is determined by the _______. (date of birth)
406. In case date of birth becomes the criterion for determining the seniority, the ________candidate becomes
the senior. (older)
407. In case of mutual transfer to a different seniority unit, their seniority is based on the ____________ of the
railway servant with whom they have exchanged, which ever of the two may be lower. (date of promotion)
408. In case of transfer to a different seniority unit in the interest of administration, the seniority is regulated by
______ (date of promotion/appointment to the grade as the case may be)
409. The seniority among the incumbents of a post in ;a grade is governed by the __________ . (the date of
appointment to the grade)
410. Grant of pay higher than initial pay shuld not confer on a Railway servant seniority above those who are
already appointed regularly. (say true or false)
411. The criterion for determination of seniority of a direct recruit should be __________. (the date of
joining the working post after due process)
412. Group D staff recruited after _________ with relaxation of qualification will be eligible to seek transfer
on request in recruitment grade on bottom seniority. (04.12.1998)
413. 50% of DA is taken into account as Dearness Pay for arriving at the quantum of composite transfer grant, in
case of staff transferred prior to 01.04.2004 but relieved after that date. (say true or false).
414. Staff transported their luggage at their own on transfer without availing the facility of Kit Pass are entitled
to the Composite Transfer Grant without any cut in the quantum. (say true or false)
415. In case the Railway accommodation is permitted to be retained by the family of the deceased for a period
of 02 years, the time limit for availing the Composite transfer grant is _ . (30 months)
416. Cases involving inter Railway transfers of sports persons shall be referred to __________ for approval.
(Railway Board)
417. All communications regarding transfer should be signed by ______ with his name and designation appearing
below the signature. (a Gazetted Personnel Officer)
418. The intensive worker must have a minimum of ______ hours of rest in a week.
419. The rostered hours of duty of an intensive worker in a week shall be ____ hours.
420. Rostered hours of duty of essentially intermittent worker in a week shall be ____ .
421. Railway servants employed in a confidential capacity are classified as ______.
422. Principles of averaging will apply to shift workers. (say true of false)
423. The period of averaging will be _________ in case of EI workers other than C class gatemen, caretakers
of rest houses and saloon attendants etc.,
424. In case of C class gatemen, Care takers of rest houses & saloon attendants classified as Essentially
Intermittent, the period of averaging shall be _________.
425. No leave reserve shall be provided for staff in Railway schools. (say true of false).
THE END
